One PC connecting to two AirVPN servers - slightly confused

[Blag 3]

My PC has two nics - one configured to work with AirVPN through the TAP-Win32 adapter and the other connected to a dd-wrt router. Until recently when each account was allowed only one connection, I would simply disconnect one and use the other depending on what I wanted to do (basically AirVPN is faster while dd-wrt allows me to watch the BBC on my TV). To avoid potential firewall problems I created two independent sets of rules for each connection.

 

Now that we can have three connections per account I noticed that even if I disable the dd-wrt adapter the router is (obviously) still connected and the client area shows those two separate connections. So I got to thinking it' might be possible to connect both adapters to different servers and in theory have my cake and eat it (ie watch the BBC while also downloading from the Netherlands; or use a faster closely located server for work and a strategically located one for personal use) and indeed it seems I can :-).

 

I'm not overly concerned with total privacy and I'm not desperate to have two connections at the same time so the above for me is more of an academic exercise and one in which I suspect I'm breaking all the rules regarding network theory

 

So the first question is can I safely run two connections from the same computer? It seems to me that this has many similarities to the port forwarding correlation issue. But I have no DNS leaks and the IP addresses look fine while Comodo doesn't throw up any serious connection problems. I do occasionally get a warning about DDNS not working when there are two simultaneous connections but it looks all good.

 

Assuming it's generally okay, what issues might there be in having unified Comodo rules? Let's say adapter 1 connects to TAP-win32 via the rule Allow IP in from anywhere. Adapter 2 connects to a country server via dd-wrt with a similar rule. Can I create a one valid network zone for containing both called AirVPN (ie 10.4.xx.xx and 192.168.2.2) and use the same rule Allow IP in from anywhere? Would it open my PC up in ways I can't imagine? It doesn't seem to.

 

I appreciate this can get quite detailed so at the moment I'm primarily concerned whether it's wrong in principle to do this and to hear from anyone else who might have tried doing it.

 

Thanks